23. Which of the following is a short acting benzodiazepine:
Dr. Ajay Gupta
23. Which of the following is a short acting benzodiazepine:

a. Diazepam
b. Flurazepam
c. Lorazepam ✅
d. Chloridiazepoxide

24. Which of the following drugs does not affect GABA gated chloride channel:

a. Muscimol
b. Alcohol
c. Picrotoxin
d. Buspirone ✅

25. Which of the following statements are true regarding benzodiazepines : (PGI type)

a. It acts as GABA agonist ✅
b. Diazepam is a short acting benzodiazepine
c. Diazepam causes lesser respiratory depression than midazolam ✅
d. Nitrazepam is metabolized ✅
e. Diazepam has higher abuse potential than midazolam

26. Which of the following statements regarding barbiturates is accurate :

a. Benzodiazepines exhibit a steeper dose response relationship as compared to barbiturates
b. Barbiturates may increase the half lives of drugs metabolized by the liver
c. Alkalinization of urine will accelerate the elimination of phenobarbital
d. Respiratory depression caused by barbiturate over dosage can be reversed by flumazenil ✅

27. Morphine is used in the treatment of which one of the following :

a. Asthma
b. Kyphoscoliosis
c. Chronic cor pulmonale
d. Left ventricular failure ✅

28. Which of the following analgesics should not be given in acute MI:

a. Methadone
b. Morphine ✅
c. Buprenorphine
d. Pentazocine

29. Features of opioid intake are all of the following except :

a. Feeling of relaxation
b. Euphoria
c. Analgesia
d. Dilated pupils ✅

30. Methadone is used in the management of opioid addiction because :

a. Its analgesic activity is less than that of morphine
b. It is an opioid receptor antagonist
c. It is not addictive
d. It is longer acting and causes milder withdrawal symptoms ✅

31. Administration of which antiepileptic drug is associated with development of hyperkinesias in children:

a. Phenytoin sodium
b. Sodium valproate
c. Carbamazepine
d. Phenobarbitone ✅

32. All of the following are side effects of valproic acid except :

a. Alopecia
b. Hepatitis
c. Nephrotoxicity ✅
d. Skin rashes

33. Which statement is true about carbamazepine :

a. Used in trigeminal neuralgia ✅
b. CYP enzyme inhibitor
c. Can cause megaloblastic anemia
d. Drug of choice in status epilepticus

34. The drug of choice for status epilepticus is :

a. Propofol
b. Lorazepam ✅
c. Ethosuximide
d. Carbamazepine

35. A 20 year old female with generalized tonic clonic epilepsy, well controlled on Tab phenytoin 300 mg/day, becomes pregnant. Pick the correct advice you would give her :

a. Stop phenytoin + start phenobarbitone and folic acid
b. Stop phenytoin + start lamotrigine and folic acid
c. Stop phenytoin + start magnesium infusion
d. Continue with phenytoin and add Tab. Folic acid during the last 2 weeks of pregnancy; give oral vitamin K too ✅

36. A 25 year old male started taking antipsychotic (haloperidol) since last three days. He presented to the emergency department with protruded tongue, breathing difficulty along with spasm of neck and jaw muscles. What could be the most likely diagnosis :

a. Drug hypersensitivity reaction
b. Acute dystonia ✅
c. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
d. Tardive dystonia

37. All of the following statements about clozapine are true except –

a. When the WBC level is less than 3000/mm3, then clozapine should be discontinued
b. Blood clozapine levels should be less than 350 ng/mL to prevent the risk of agranulocytosis
c. The action of clozapine is more on D1 receptors than D2 receptors ✅
d. The combination of clozapine and carbamazepine should be better avoided

38. Correct about the urine of lithium as an important component of management of manic depressive psychosis is :

a. Is associated with delayed (>2 weeks) electrolyte disturbances
b. Can be given alone for acute episodes
c. Monitoring of serum concentration is seldom useful for guiding dose adjustment
d. Cause benign and reversible depression of T wave on ECG ✅

39. All of the following can result in serotonin syndrome when combined with MAO inhibitors except :

a. Tricyclic antidepressants
b. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
c. Carbamazepine
d. Tyramine containing foods ✅

40. Nowadays the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are the preferred drugs for depression. These drugs also have a role in treatment of which of the following :

a. Phobia
b. Obsessive compulsive disorder
c. Post traumatic stress disorder
d. All of the above ✅

41. Which of the following is not correctly matched :

a. Tolcapone – COMT inhibitor
b. Selegiline – MAO-A inhibitor ✅
c. Pramipexole – Dopamine receptor agonist
d. Benserazide – Peripheral dopa decarboxylase inhibitor

42. In treatment of Parkinson’s disease, which of the following is not true :

a. Injectable apomorphine has been used as a rescue therapy to control off spells
b. Sleep attacks can occur with all dopamine agonists
c. Dopamine agonists can be used only as adjuncts to levodopa and are not effective as monotherapy ✅
d. Amantadine can reduce drug induced dyskinesias by more than 50 percent

43. Which of the following adverse effective of levodopa is not minimized even after combining it with carbidopa :

a. Involuntary movements ✅
b. Nausea and vomiting
c. Cardiac arrhythmia
d. On- off effect

44. The selective MAO –B inhibitor out of the following is :

a. Selegiline ✅
b. Clorgyline
c. Moclebemide
d. Tranylcypromine

Q.66 Which of the following does not have a role in acute attack of asthma:

a. Cromolyn sodium ✅
b. Ipratropium
c. MgSO4
d. Salbutamol

Q.67 Which of the following injections is available for subcutaneous administration?

a. Albuterol
b. Terbutaline ✅
c. Metaproterenol
d. Pirbuterol

Q.68 Which of the following is not an adverse effect of salbutamol:

a. Tachycardia
b. Tolerance
c. Hypokalemia
d. Hypoglycemia ✅

Q.69 A 55 year old female who is taking propranolol for the management of a cardiovascular disease experience an acute asthmatic attack. Which of the following drugs would you prescribe to attenuate this asthmatic attack:

a. Cromolyn sodium
b. Salbutamol
c. Beclomethasone
d. Ipratropium bromide ✅

Q.70 Which of the following actions is not exhibited by methylxanthines:

a. Intracellular release of Ca2+ ✅
b. Antagonism of adenosine
c. Inhibition of phosphodisterase
d. Histone deacytalation

Q.71 A 20- year old male Chintu is being treated with Zafirlukast for bronchial asthma. The most likely site of action of this drug from the diagram can be deciphered as:

A. 5-LOX
B. cysLT1 ✅
C. Beta 2
D. IgE

Q.72 Which is a soft steroid used in bronchial asthma:

a. Budesonide
b. Dexamethasone
c. Ciclesonide ✅
d. Flunisolide

Q.73. All are anti-tussive except:

a. Codeine
b. Noscapine
c. Ambroxol ✅
d. Dextromethorphan

Q.74. Doxapram is:

a. Antitussive
b. Nootrophic
c. Analeptic ✅
d. Sedative

Q.75. Drug for G551D mutation incystic fibrois:

a. Ivacaftor ✅
b. Pirfenidone
c. Defibreotide
d. Dornase Alpha

Q.114. H3 antagonist approved for narcolepsy:

a. Modafnil
b. Tiprolisant ✅
c. Ramelteon
d. Zaleplon

Q.115. First generation antihistaminic that can given day time is?

a. Prothemazine
b. Cinnarizine
c. Cyproheptadine
d. Chlorpheniramine ✅

Q.116 Which one is a contraindication to the use of ergot derivatives :

a. Migraine
b. Hyperprolactinemia
c. Obstructive vascular disease ✅
d. Postpartum hemorrhage

Q.117 Which one of the following drugs and active metabolite combination is incorrect :

a. Hydroxyzine – Cetirizine
b. Terfenadine – Fexofenadine
c. Chlorpromazine – Promethazine ✅
d. Loratidine – Desloratidine

Q.118 H1 antihistaminic having best topical activity is:

a. Loratidine
b. Cetrizine
c. Astemizole ✅
d. Azelastine

Q.119 Selective 5-HT1B/1D receptor agonist useful in acute migraine is :

a. Buspiron
c. Frovatriptan ✅
d. Ketanserin

Q.120 After taking a drug for an acute attack of migraine, a patient developed nausea and vomiting; tingling and numbness in the tip of the finger that also turned blue. Which of the following is the most likely drug implicated in causing the above findings?

a. Dihydroergotamine ✅
b. Sumatriptan
c. Methysergide
d. β-blocker

Q. 121. Clozapine induced metabolic syndrome and weight gain is due to blockage of :

a. 5-HT2A
b. 5-HT2C ✅
c. 5-HT1A
d. 5-HT4

Q.123 Prostaglandin derivatives are used in following conditions except :

a. PG D2: Cervical ripening
b. PGF2alpha : postpartum haemorrhage
c. PGE1: priapism ✅
d. PGI 2: pulmonary artery hypertension

Q. 124. False about Misoprostol is:

a. Abortifeciant upto 63 days
b Causes Diarrhea, Mobius syndrome
c. Given in pulmonary artery hypertension ✅
d. used in NSAID induced ulcer

Q. 125. True about Banned NSAIDS are all except:

a. Rofecoxib: MI
b. Nimesulide: hepatotoxic
c. Phenylbutazone: agranulcytosis
d. Phenacitin: Peptic ulcers ✅

Q.126 NSAID proposed to be acting via inhibition of TRPV1 receptor is:

a. Nimesulide
b. Paracetamol ✅
c. Ketorolac
d. Rofecoxib

Q.127 A 50-year old patient is diagnosed with primary pulmonary arterial hypertension. Which of the, following drugs can be used for his treatment except?

a. Bosentan
b. Selexipag
c. Sildenafil
d. Furosemide ✅

Q.128 Allopurinol is useful in all of the following conditions
except :

a. Cancer chemotherapy induced hyperuricemia
b. Hydrochlorothiazide induced hyperuricemia
c. Acute gouty arthritis ✅
d. Kala azar

Q129 Drug that convert uric acid to allantoin:

a. Rasburicase ✅
b. Probenecid
c. Colchicine
d. Febuxostat

Q.130 Raju, a 30- year old male presents to the OPD with sudden onset pain, swelling andt redness of the left first metatarsophalangeal joint. A needle aspirate of the joint shows needle shaped, negatively birefringent crystals. The physician prescribed a drug for the acute control of symptom, but he came back next day with nausea, vomiting and diarrhea after taking the medication. The drug is obtained from a plant and inhibit WBC migration. Which of the is the most likely drug was prescribed to this patient:

a. Allopurinol
b. Colchicine ✅
c. Steroids
d. Indomethacin

Q.131 A rheumatoid arthritis patient on methotrexate 7.5mg weekly. However even after using methotrexate, recurrent episodes of arthritis continued. The physician wants to replace the DMARD, which inhibits pyrimidine synthesis by inhibiting dihydroorotate dehydrogenase enzyme and require 100mg of the dose. Which of the following drugs is the physician thinking about :
a. Sulfasalazine
b. Infliximab
c. Leflunomide ✅
d. Abatacept

Q.132. Safest treatment of hyperthyroidism in pregnant women is :

a. Radioactive iodine
b. Methimazole
c. Carbimazole
d. Propylthiouracil ✅

Q.76 Incorrect use is:

a. Enalapril: B/L renal stenosis ✅
b. Clonidine: Hot flushes
c. Atenolol: HOCM
d. Amlodipine: pulmonary hypertension

Q.77 Acetazolamide: false statement is:

a. Sulfomanide derivative
b. Non competitive + reversible inhibitor
c. Hyperkalemic metabolic alkalosis ✅
d. Bone marrow supression

Q.78 Spironolactone should not be given with:

a. Chlorothiazide
b. Beta blocker
c. ACE inhibitors ✅
d. Amlodipine

Q.79 One of the following diuretics does not require its presence in the tubular lumen for its pharmacological effects:

a. Thiazide diuretics
b. Loop diuretics
c. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
d. Aldosterone antagonists ✅

Q.80 Which of the following diuretic is contraindicated in the presence of cardiac failure:

a. Mannitol ✅
b. Spironolactone
c. Furosemide
d. Hydrochlorthiazide

Q.81 Free water clearance is decreased by?

a. Vincristine
b. Vinblastine
c. Chlorpropamide
d. Furosemide ✅

Q.82 Intravenous furosemide is used for rapid control of symptoms in acute left ventricular failure. It provides quick relief of dyspnoea by:

a. Producing bronchodilation
b. Causing rapid diuresis and reducing circulating blood volume
c. Causing vasodilation ✅
d. Stimulating left ventricular contractility

Q.83 Which of the following is NOT associated with Thiazide diuretics?

a. Hypercalciuria ✅
b. Impotence
c. Hypokalemia
d. Hyperuricemia

Q84. Match the following:
A. Desmopressin 1. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
B. Terlipressin 2. Neurogenic diabetes insipidus
C. Thiazides 3. Esophageal varices
D. Amiloride 4. SIADH
E. Tolvaptan 5. Lithium toxicity

a) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3, E-5
b) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2, E-5
c) A-2, B-5, C-3, D-1, E-4
d) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-5, E-4 ✅

Drugs on RAAS

Q.85 Which of the following drug decreases plasma renin activity:

a. Enalapril
b. Nifedipine
c. Hydralazine
d. Clonidine ✅

Q.86 Anti- hypertensive drug contraindicated in pregnancy is:

a. Enalapril ✅
b. Labetalol
c. Methyl dopa
d. Hydralazine

Q.87 Incorrectly match antihypertensive in co-morbities:

a. Enalapril: B/L renal stenosis ✅
b. Clonidine: Hot flushes
c. Atenolol: HOCM
d. Amlodipine: pulmonary hypertension

Q.88 Losartan has all activities except:

a. AT1 receptor blocker
b. Uricos-uric agent
c. PPAR-gamma agonist ✅
d. Antiplatelet

Q.89. Antihypertensive which can be used in patient with gout and diabetes mellitus is:

a. Thiazide
b. Enalapril ✅
c. Propanolol
d. Diazoxide


Q.90 Drug of choice for termination of acute paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia is:

a. Calcium channel blocker
b. Beta blocker
c. Digoxin
d. Adenosine ✅

Q.91 Digitalis acts in CHF by:

a. Na+ K+ ATPase inhibition ✅
b. Na+ K+ ATPase stimulation
c. Blockade of calcium channel
d. Increasing the refractory period of AV node

Q.92 Treatment of digitalis toxicity does not include:

a. Phenytoin for VF
b. Potassium supplements
c. Fab fragments digitalis antibodies
d. Forced diuresis by loop diuretics ✅

Q.93 Digoxin is not indicated in :

a. Atrial flutter
b. Atrial fibrillation
c. High output failure ✅

Q.94 Most effective drug for acute RVF:

a. Nor adrenaline
b. Milrinone ✅
c. Digoxin
d. Epinephrine

Q.95 Not used in heart failure:

a. Verapamil ✅
b. Carvedilol
c. Sacubitril
d. Nesiritide

Q.96 Nitrate and nitroprusside stimulate:

a. Adenyl cyclase
b Guanyl cyclase ✅
c. Phospholipase
d. Phosphodiesterase

Q.97 Preferential arteriolar dilators used in treatment of CHF include:

a. Hydralazine ✅
b. Nitrates
c. Prazosin
d. Enalapril


Q.98 You decide not to prescribe sildenafil in a patient because the patient because the patient told you that his is taking an antianginal drug. Which of the following can it be:

a. Calcium channel blocker
b. β adrenergic blocker
c. Organic nitrates ✅
d. Potassium channel opener

Q.99 Verapamil is contraindicated in:

a. Hypertension
b. Sick sinus syndrome ✅
c. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
d. Angina pectoris

Q.100 DOC subarachnoid hemmorrhage:

a. Nicardipine
b. Nifedipine
c. Nimodipine ✅
d. Nitrendipine

Q.101 Which of the following agent is a Rho kinase inhibitor:

a. Fasudil ✅
b. Ranolazine
c. Trimetazidine
d. Ivabradine

Q.102 Treatment of choice for cyanide poisoning is :

a. NaHCO3
b. KMnO4
c. NaCI
d. Sodium nitrite followed by thiosulphate ✅


Q.103 Which of the following is wrongly matched combination of anti arrhythmic drugs and their class :

a. Flecainide – IC
b. Sotalol- II ✅
c. Amiodarone- III
d. Lignocaine-IB

Q.104 Drugs that reduce the potassium repolarising current and therapy prolong the action potential duration include all of the following except:

a. Amiodarone
b. Lignocaine ✅
c. Quinidine
d. Sotalol

Q.105 The drug of choice for rapid correction of PSVT in known asthmatic is

a. Adenosine
b. Esmolol
c. Neostigmine
d. Verapamil ✅

Q.106 Not a use of Magnesium as a drug :

a Torsades de pointes
b. Bronchodilator
c Hypocalcemic tetany✅
d Ecclampsia


Q.107 Which of the following stains has the longest half life :

a. Cerivastatin
b. Rosuvastatin ✅
c. Atorvastatin
d. Simvastatin

Q108 A patient with history of MI and well controlled Diabetes on insulin came to OPD with LDL-C level of 220mg/dl, TG-190mg/dl and HDL-55mg/dl. The drug must be started si:

a. Atorvastatin 80 mg ✅
b. Niacin 3 grams
c. Rosuvastatin 5 mg
d. Fenofibrate 40mg

Q109 Incorrect match:

a. Niacin: reduce Lp(a)
b. Evolocumab: PCSK-9 inhibitor
c. Atorvastatin: safest in pregnancy ✅
d. Ezetimibe: NPC1L1 inhibitor

Q.110 Ticlopidine is an :

a. Gp2b/3a inhibitor
b. P2Y12 blocker ✅
c. PDE 3 inhibitor
d. TXA2 synthase inhibitor

Q.111 Anticogulant does not require monitoring:

a. Warfarin
b. Heparin
c. Lepirudin
d. Dabigatran ✅

Q:112 A 55 years obese patient started on warfarin comes 2 days before to emergency with severe pain, cellulitis and necrotic skin lesion. Possible cause is

a. Protein C deficiency ✅
b. Antithrombin deficiency
c. Hypersensitivity
d. Warfarin overdose

Q113 Find the INCORRECT match:

a. Tenectaeplase: bolus fibrinolytic
b. Tranexamic acid: Anti-thrombolytic
c. Oprelvekin: IL-11
d. Fondaparinux: crude heparin ✅

Q.1 Which phase of clinical trial is conducted in heterogenous population..?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3 ✅
D. 4

Q.2 Subacute animal toxicity is tested for:

a. 1 day
b. 90 days ✅
c. 120 days
d. 6 months

Q.3. Weight of rabbit in eye experiment for testing miotics and mydriatics :

a. 0.5 kg
b. 1.5 - 2.0 kg ✅
c. 4 - 6 kg
d. 6 - 8 kg

Q.4 Number of patient In Phase 2 trials:

a. 50-100
b. 100-500
c. 500-2000 ✅
d. 5000-10000

Q.5.Purpose of phase 1 trial:

a. Dose route ✅
b. Efficacy
c. Safety
d. Rare side effects

Q.6.False statement is:

a. phase 1: maximum tolerable dose
b. phase 2: Dose ranging
c. phase 3: dose confirmation
d. phase 0: efficacy of drug ✅

Q.7 Phase 4 clinical trial is carried out:

a. Before the marketing approval of a drug
b. After a drug is marketed ✅
c. For drug used in rare disease
d. For drugs used in pediatric patient

Q.8. Good clinical practices is not required in:

a. Preclinical trial ✅
b. Phase 1
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 2


Q.9. Maximum topical penetration is from:

a. Post auricular ✅
b. Scrotum
c. Arms
d. Palms and soles

Q.10. Drug absorption across the cell membrane is mainly by:

a. Passive absorption ✅
b. Pinocytosis
c. Facilitated
d. Active

Q.11. Not given by transdermal patch:

a. Clonidine
b. Diphenhydramine
c. Dexmeditomidine ✅
d. Nicotine

Q.12. pK value of drug is:

a. Efficacy
b. Affinity
c. Ionization potential at pH ✅
d. Elimination constant

Q.13 The greater proportion of the dose of a drug administered orally will be absorbed in the small intestine. However, on the assumption that passive transport of the non-ionized form of a drug determines its rate of absorption, which of the following compounds will be absorbed to the least extent in the stomach?

a. Ampicillin (pKa = 2.5)
b. Aspirin (pKa = 3.0)
c. Warfarin (pKa = 5.0)
d. Propranolol (pKa = 9.4) ✅

Q.14. Hemodialysis is useful in all of the following except:

a. Barbiturate poisoning
b. Methanol poisoning
c. Salicylate poisoning
d. Digoxin poisoning ✅

Q.15. 100% bioavailability is by which route:

a. IV ✅
b. Oral
c. Sublingual
d. Intramuscular

Q.16. Hepatic First pass metabolism is seen with which route:

a. IV
b. Oral ✅
c. Sublingual
d. Intramuscular

Q.17. Tmax on Concentration time graph denotes:

a. Extent of absorption
b. Maximum absorption
c. Rate of absorption ✅
d. Toxic potential

Q.18. Permissible range of generic drugs to be Bioequivalent is:

a. 60-120%
b. 80-125% ✅
c. 90-115%
d. 95-105%

Q.19. Antidote for Amfetamine poisoning :

a. Sodium bicarbonate ✅
b. Ammonium chloride ✅
c. Phentolamine
d. Acetazolamide

Q.20. Drug whose absorption is increased by food are all except:

a. Tetracycline ✅
b. Fibrates
c. Erlotinib
d. Griseofulvin

Q.21. False about volume of distribution:

a. Extravasular deposition of drug
b. True plasma volume for a drug ✅
c. Vary with age, gender and disease
d. High Vd drugs are lipid soluble

Q.22. Not a prodrug:

a. Spironolactone ✅
b. Enalapril
c. Minoxidil
d. Levodopa

Q.23. Phase 2 reaction is:

a. Oxidation
b. Deamination
c. Reduction
d. Acetylation ✅

Q.24. CYP Enzyme inhibitor is:

a. Pheytoin
b. Ciprofloxacin ✅
c. Rifampicin
d. Alcohol

Q.25. M
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