#DiagnosticDilemma: What is your take on this case??
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A 42-year-old woman with acute myocardial infarction

A 42-year-old woman presented with anterior ST-elevation myocardial infarction. Urgent coronary angiography revealed tapering then occlusion of the distal left anterior descending (LAD) coronary artery with no flow in the distal LAD (figure 1A).

Balloon angioplasty with a 2.0×8mm balloon re-established flow into the distal LAD. An angiogram of the right external iliac artery was also performed (figure 1B).

Which of the following explains the abnormal appearance of the external iliac artery (figure 1B)?

A. Atherosclerosis

B. Concertina effect

C. Fibromuscular dysplasia

D. Perforation

E. Multiple aneurysms

Answer to be disclosed shortly!

*The present article appears in the journal BMJ Heart
R●●●l D●y and 11 others like this1 share
M●●●e S●●●●y
M●●●e S●●●●y General Medicine
B. concertina effect
Sep 17, 2018Like
Dr. L●●●●●●●●●●●●●u K●●i
Dr. L●●●●●●●●●●●●●u K●●i Internal Medicine
Sep 18, 2018Like
Dr. S●●●●●●m H●●●●●●r
Dr. S●●●●●●m H●●●●●●r General Medicine
Sep 24, 2018Like