#DiagnosticDilemma: What is your take on this case??
A man cries tears of blood*

A 52-year-old man presented to the emergency department with painless, bloody tears from both eyes. The bleeding had begun spontaneously approximately 2 hours earlier, had lasted a few minutes, and had recurred just before presentation.

He was taking captopril for mild hypertension, and his blood pressure was normal. The clinical examination revealed slight conjunctival hyperemia without periorbital or palpebral edema. The patient had normal vision and extraocular movements.

Which of the following is NOT a cause of hemolacria?

A. Hemangioma

B. Infection

C. Adverse reaction to systemic antibiotics

D. Trauma to eye or surrounding structures

E. Retrograde epistaxis

Answer to be disclosed shortly!

*The following case appears in NEJM
M●●●j K●●●r and 21 others like this5 shares
S●●●●n R●●●●●●●●●i
S●●●●n R●●●●●●●●●i General Medicine
Which is the correct answer?
Nov 7, 2018Like
Dr. J●●●●●●●e V●●●a J●●e
Dr. J●●●●●●●e V●●●a J●●e Pharmacology
B .Adverse reaction to systemic antibiotics
Nov 7, 2018Like
Dr. R●●●●o N●●●●●●●e
Dr. R●●●●o N●●●●●●●e Pathology
Nov 9, 2018Like