#DiagnosticDilemma: What's your take on this?
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A 34-year-old man with a history of intravenous drug use and hepatitis C infection presented to the ophthalmology clinic with a 1-week history of pain and decreased vision in his right eye. The visual acuity was 20/400 in the right eye and 20/20 in the left eye. The slit-lamp examination of the right eye showed conjunctival injection and inflammation in the anterior chamber. Indirect ophthalmoscopy showed vitreous haze with yellow-white lesions on the retina and optic nerve. Following workup, surgery was performed and a white mass measuring 4 mm by 3 mm by 1 mm was seen adherent to the optic nerve.

What is the most likely diagnosis/etiology?

A) Retinoblastoma
B) Amelanotic uveal melanoma
C) Astrocytic hamartoma
D) Fungal endophthalmitis
E) Malignant optic nerve prolapse

Please write your answer in the comment section below. The correct answer will be posted soon.
S●●●●a C●●●●●●●u and 1 others like this
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Dr. A●●●l A●●z M●●●●●e
Dr. A●●●l A●●z M●●●●●e Ophthalmology
D
Jun 23, 2020Like
Dr. S●●●●i S●●●●●●i
Dr. S●●●●i S●●●●●●i Ophthalmology
Fungal Endophthalmitis
Jun 24, 2020Like
Dr. S●●●●●●●N J●●●●●●●●●N
Dr. S●●●●●●●N J●●●●●●●●●N Anaesthesiology
Fungal Endophthalmitis
Jun 24, 2020Like